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Is God a Trinity... Part II. ‘Proof Texts’

If we can set aside prejudice and preconceived ideas, stick to exactly what the text says, and abstain from going beyond the actual words we will find that the so called ‘Proof Texts’ prove absolutely nothing

Carol Brooks

Index To All Nine Sections

 Part I - Historical Background. Is the orthodox version of one God in three persons an unassailable and inviolable doctrine straight from the pages of Scripture? Not exactly! This incomprehensible doctrine was formally adopted in 381 AD as a defense against charges that Christians worshipped more than one God. It prevailed because it satisfied a number of requirements and gave the church a nice tidy solution. Yet, although unknown to the Scriptures, it somehow evolved into a litmus test for true faith.    

You Are Here 001orange Part II - ‘Proof Texts’.  Passages that supposedly "prove" the trinity.

Part III - The Grammar. Can the grammar legitimately be used to support the idea that the Holy Spirit is the third Person of the Trinity?

Part IV - The Deity of Christ and the Holy Spirit. The Bible very clearly shows that Christ is God AND ascribes Divinity to the Holy Spirit which leads to the question...

Part V - Can God be more than one?

Part VI - What is The Holy Spirit? - A separate person, or the Divine presence and power of the Father Himself? 

Part VII - The Cappadocian Fathers. The doctrine of the trinity that has remained virtually unchanged to this day found its roots in paganism not the Bible. This largely due to the part played by the Cappadocian Fathers - three ancient Greek philosophers and mystics.

Part VIII - Begotten Vs. Proceeds. The Son is "begotten" of the Father and the Spirit "proceeds" from the Father. Different? Certainly! But not what The Cappadocian Fathers made it out to be

Part IX - Summary and Conclusion

ON THIS PAGE

Introduction
Proof Texts?
(Verses that mention Father, Son and Holy Spirit in one place)
1 John 5:7
(The Comma Johanneum)
Matthew 28:19
(A Baptismal Formula?)
The Epistles


Introduction

When someone who already believes in the trinity reads any of the Biblical passages that mention Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in one breath - they immediately impose the concept onto those texts and go "Aha! Here's the proof".

Asking a person to simply read the text in order to understand what the words mean seems to be quite a novel concept for Christians who tend rather to allow pre-bias to influence their understanding of the text.

What is wrong with us?

Are we just so used to having the Bible explained to us that we are too lazy or too gullible to do our own research? Have we been so indoctrinated that when we read the verses in question, we read into them what we have been led to believe they say/have always been told what their meaning is. Or do we as a matter of course just believe the man behind the pulpit - the one with a string of letters behind his name. After all, he must know what he is talking about.

It is not surprising that, over and over again, Jesus called us sheep.

If we, without prejudice, or preconceived ideas stick to exactly what the text says and abstain from going beyond the actual words, we will find that none of the verses usually cited say anything about the nature of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. None of them describe a triune Godhead, or even imply that there are three coequal Persons in one Divine Being.


'Proof Texts'
The Oxford Companion to the Bible says

    While the New Testament writers say a great deal about God, Jesus and the Spirit of each, no New Testament writer expounds on the relationship among the three in the detail that later Christian writers do. [01]

And that is true - in spades.

Kenneth Samples, senior research scholar at Reasons To Believe, says "six simple statements show how this doctrine is indeed derived from Scripture". The first four statements point out that there is only one true God, and the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are all "called or referred to as God".

    There is only one true God (Deuteronomy 6:4; Isaiah 43:10; John 17:3; Galatians 3:20).

    The Father is called or referred to as God (Psalm 89:26; Ephesians 4:6; Colossians 1:2–3; 2 Peter 1:17).

    The Son (Jesus Christ) is called or referred to as God (John 1:1; Philippians 2:6; Colossians 2:9; Titus 2:13).

    The Holy Spirit is called or referred to (or granted the status) as God (Genesis 1:2; John 14:26; Acts 13:2, 4; Romans 8:11). [02]

No argument there. The fifth statement is

    "The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are distinct persons and can be distinguished from one another (the Father is not the Son; the Father is not the Holy Spirit; and the Son is not the Holy Spirit.

In support of this Mr. Samples refers to the following texts,

    1. Matthew 28:19:  Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit. (More about this verse below)

    2. Luke 3:22:  and the Holy Spirit descended upon Him in bodily form like a dove, and a voice came out of heaven, "You are My beloved Son, in You I am well-pleased." 

    3. John 15:26: When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me, 

    4. John 16:13-15: But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. "He will glorify Me, for He will take of Mine and will disclose it to you. "All things that the Father has are Mine; therefore I said that He takes of Mine and will disclose it to you. (NASB)

    5. 2 Corinthians 13:14: The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit, be with you all. 

However, if you read these verses you will see that none of them do anything but show Father, Son, and Holy Spirit exist. Quote 2 from Luke mentions an occasion when they were all present at the same time.

    After being baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove and lighting on Him, and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased." (NASB)

Please note that both Luke 3:22 and Matthew 3:16-17 (the parallel verse) can legitimately support the claim that three separate gods were involved at the time. God 1 was baptized, god 2 took the form of a dove, and god 3 spoke.  The problem is when we read about this event our preconditioning automatically makes us jump to the conclusion that because Father, Son and Holy Spirit all do different things simultaneously each of them has to be a separate and individual Being.

This is a very human perspective. We simply cannot apply to God our understanding of how things work in our physical three dimensional world.

In reality the text only tells us that God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit simultaneously did different things. I have absolutely no idea how that is possible but if the Bible is content to tell us that God and His Spirit can perform separate activities at the same time without explaining 'how', then I am equally content to accept it as so. I don't understand How God made a dragonfly's wings either.

A Triadic Pattern Of Unity And Equality?
However, Mr. Samples goes on to say (Emphasis Added)

    "The three persons (Father or God; and Son or Christ or Lord; and Holy Spirit or Spirit) are frequently listed together in a triadic pattern of unity and equality (Romans 15:16, 30; 1 Corinthians 12:4-6; 2 Corinthians 1:21–22; Galatians 4:6)." [03].

Please read these verses and let me know if you find a single word about unity/ equality or one God in three persons. Actually, let me know if you find a single verse in the New Testament that defines the supposed three way relationship.

Since Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are all equally involved in the process of human salvation, it is little wonder that they are mentioned together in some contexts but, unless we read our own ideas into the these verses, none of them in any way, substantiate the orthodox view of the Trinity as God in three Persons.

In fact, every single one of these verses apply to something that the Bible gives us a great deal of clear and unambiguous evidence for that is the Holy Spirit is not a separate person but the divine presence and power of the Father Himself . See Chapter 6


1 John 5:7 (The Comma Johanneum)
1 John 5:7 is often pointed to as proof of the three separate Persons in Heaven. However it is widely believed that this short clause was a later addition. The King James version reads (the disputed verse has been underlined)

    (5) Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God? (6)  This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth. (7)  For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.  (8) And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. (1 John 5:5-8 KJV)

This controversial portion of 1 John 5 is known as the Comma Johanneum (comma simply means "short clause"). Some Christians staunchly resist eliminating the Comma from modern translations because it supports the doctrine that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one God.

Nonetheless, most scholars now believe that although the theology contained in the Comma is true, the Comma itself was not in John's original writings, but was added later to provide unambiguous evidence for the doctrine. Both the internal and external evidence speak against the authenticity of the passage.


Internal Evidence
The Comma Johanneum isn't found in any early Greek manuscripts nor in early translations. As explained by Wayne Jackson of Christian Courier (Emphasis added)

     The passage is found in only four Greek manuscripts (of more than 5,000 available ones), none of which dates before the eleventh century A.D. Even in these manuscripts, it appears that the passage has been rendered from a late edition of the Latin Vulgate....

     The passage is absent from the manuscripts of all the ancient versions into which the Greek had been translated, e.g., Syriac, Coptic, Ethiopic, Arabic, and the Old Latin, and the Vulgate (in their early forms).

     The earliest instance of this phraseology is found in a 4th century essay titled, Liber Apologeticus. From thence it found its way into the writings of the Latin Fathers, and into the Old Latin and Vulgate versions (c. 5th and 8th centuries respectively). 

So why was it was present in most translations of 1 John published from 1522 until the latter part of the nineteenth century? The answer is simply because the third edition of the Textus Receptus (or received version) was the sole source for translation. As Wayne Jackson goes on to say

    "When Erasmus published the early editions of his Greek New Testament (1516, 1519), he was criticized for not including the spurious sentence. Yielding to pressure, he promised to put it in a later edition if it could be found in only one manuscript. Subsequently, a copy was produced — apparently made to order! — and Erasmus incorporated it into his third edition (1522). From there it made its way into the Textus Receptus (the so-called Received Text) and finally into the King James Version". [04]

The Big Book of Bible Difficulties tells us:

    "This verse has virtually no support among the early Greek manuscripts . . . Its appearance in late Greek manuscripts is based on the fact that Erasmus was placed under ecclesiastical pressure to include it in his Greek NT of 1522, having omitted it in his two earlier editions of 1516 and 1519 because he could not find any Greek manuscripts which contained it" [05].

This is widely supported by other Biblical scholars who now largely agree that the theology contained in the Comma is true, but that the Comma is not an original part of the Epistle of John

"The textual evidence is against 1 John 5:7," explains Dr. Neil Lightfoot, a New Testament professor (Emphasis Added)

    Of all the Greek manuscripts, only two contain it. These two manuscripts are of very late dates, one from the fourteenth or fifteenth century and the other from the sixteenth century. Two other manuscripts have this verse written in the margin. All four manuscripts show that this verse was apparently translated from a late form of the Latin Vulgate"  [06]

Theology professors Anthony and Richard Hanson, in their book Reasonable Belief: A Survey of the Christian Faith, explain the unwarranted addition to the text this way: (Emphasis Added)

    "This was a late interpolation quite certainly absent from the original text. It was added by some enterprising person or persons in the ancient Church who felt that the New Testament was sadly deficient in direct witness to the kind of doctrine of the Trinity which he favoured and who determined to remedy that defect . . . It is a waste of time to attempt to read Trinitarian doctrine directly off the pages of the New Testament"  [07]

Nearly all recent translations have removed this clause. However, there are still some who cry "foul", to which bible.org says

That KJV advocates have charged modern translations with heresy because they lack the Comma is a house of cards, for the same translators who have worked on the NIV, NASB, or NET (as well as many other translations) have written several articles and books affirming the Trinity. [08]

External Evidence
The Comma Johanneum is strangely missing from several early sources in which one might have expected to find it.

For example, although Clement of Alexandria's writings around the year 200 place a strong emphasis on the Trinity, his quotation of 1 John 5:8 does not include the Comma. In fact, none of the early Church Fathers quoted this part of the passage, in spite of the fact that this verse (especially the latter half which states that these three are one) would have greatly contributed to the strength of their arguments in for example, their Trinitarian debates with the Arians.

Why?

Simply because this clause did not exist at the time.

In any case, the addition says nothing about the nature of the Father, Word and Holy Spirit, but merely lists all three as witnesses in heaven. Note that verse 8 lists three witness on earth (the Spirit, and the water, and the blood), two of which are inanimate objects.


Matthew 28:19
Like Matthew 3:16-17 and Luke 3:22 (above) verse 19 is often assumed to be a proof text for the orthodox view of one God in three persons, ie. Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Jesus tells His disciples

    (19) Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, (20) teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." (Matthew 28:19-20 NASB)

However, if we just read His words and abstain from reading our own ideas into them it is clear that the text itself is not a description of the nature of God. Jesus did not tell us who they are much less what their exact relationship is. Note very carefully that this text CAN also be used to support Tritheism i.e. Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are three separate Gods.

About this verse Robert M. Bowman Jr. says the

     "use of definite article before each personal noun indicates distinct persons unless explicitly stated otherwise". [09]

I am not sure how anything but pre-bias could lead to that conclusion. I could very well say "The priest and the deacon and the incense burner are all behind the altar. Silly? Sure! But the sentence in no way shows that the incense burner is also a person rather than an inanimate object. Or I could just as well say something about "The Father, The Son, and the rocking chair". I am not trying to be disrespectful but merely making a point.

A Baptismal Formula?
Melinda Penner (cited in the previous chapter) says (Emphasis Added)

    Admission to the church was connected with belief in the doctrine of the Trinity as evidenced by the early baptismal formula that was used in accordance with the command of Jesus in Matthew 28:19. The doctrine of the Trinity was essential from the beginning of the Christian Church.  [10]

Not true. Because if Jesus' command was that this verbal formula be used on every occasion, Peter really messed up when on Pentecost he told the Jews ... (Emphasis Added)

    "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2:38 NASB)

Did Peter forget the words the Lord had told him to use, decide to ignore the Holy Spirit, or did he understand (as we seem not to) that the very act of baptism involves Father, Son and Holy Spirit. In other words, when Jesus told His disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, it was an acknowledgment that all three are involved in the process and not intended to be a precise formula used as admission to the church, nor support for the orthodox version of the Trinity.

At baptism we 1.) enter into a covenant relationship with God the Father, 2.) only made possible through the sacrifice of Jesus Christ. 3.) However, receiving the Spirit is an integral and indispensable part of becoming a Christian.

    It happened that while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul passed through the upper country and came to Ephesus, and found some disciples. He said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said to him, "No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit." And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" And they said, "Into John's baptism." Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in Him who was coming after him, that is, in Jesus." When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying. (Acts 19:1-6 NASB)

    if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him" (Romans 8:9).

    For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, "Abba! Father!" The Spirit Himself testifies with our spirit that we are children of God, (Romans 8:14-16 NASB)


The Epistles
Several verses in the epistles are used to support belief in a Trinity. But once again, none of them do anything but show that Father, Son and Holy Spirit all exist and are all necessary to both becoming and remaining a Christian. None of them speak of, or even hint at, a triune God. And, even more importantly, none of them present the Spirit as a separate being. Once again, read what the text says, not what you have been told the text means.

Romans 15:30

    I know that when I come to you, I will come in the fullness of the blessing of Christ. Now I urge you, brethren, by our Lord Jesus Christ and by the love of the Spirit, to strive together with me in your prayers to God for me. (NASB)

The "love of the Spirit" is the love of God that is put in our hearts through the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5). In other words, the Spirit of God produces love and sympathy in our hearts. Paul asks the Galatians to manifest that love by praying earnestly for him. There is absolutely nothing in this verse that says or even implies that the Spirit is a person.

Romans 15:30 simply shows that Jesus, the Spirit and God the Father exist, not that they form a triune being.

2 Corinthians 13:14

    The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship (Gr. koinonia) of the Holy Spirit, be with you all. (2 Corinthians 13:14: NASB)

This is the only place in Paul's writings that he mentions the Holy Spirit in the same verse as the Father and Son. What is to be particularly taken note of is the fact that Paul does not say our fellowship is with the Holy Spirit but of the Holy Spirit. He does exactly the same thing in his letter to the Philippians once again using the phrase "fellowship of the Spirit", not with the Spirit.

    Therefore if there is any encouragement in Christ, if there is any consolation of love, if there is any fellowship (Gk. koinonia) of the Spirit, if any affection and compassion, make my joy complete by being of the same mind, maintaining the same love, united in spirit, intent on one purpose. (Philippians 2:1-2 NASB)

Over and over Paul stressed the unity of believers. He exhorted them to be "like minded" (2 Corinthians 13:11), walk in love (Ephesians 5:2), stand firm in one spirit, and with one mind strive together for the faith of the gospel (Philippians 1:27). Paul was not making a theological statement about the nature of God, but merely saying God's spirit is the unifying agent that bring us together.

    "There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all. (Ephesians 4:4–6 NASB)

    For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit. (1 Corinthians 12:13 NASB)

    Ephesians 2:18-19: for through Him we both have our access in one Spirit to the Father. So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God's household, (NASB)

      Any trinitarian implications of this verse are only obvious to those who are already convinced of the truth of the doctrine. Just as Paul exhorted the Corinthians to unity through the Holy Spirit (above), he told the Ephesians that "There is one body and one Spirit" (4:4–6) and through Christ we have access to the Father through this one Spirit. The verse says nothing of the Spirit being a Person.

    1 Peter 1:2: according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace be yours in the fullest measure. (NASB)

    In context this verse says the Holy Spirit sanctifies us to obey Christ. However, it neither says nor implies that the Holy Spirit is a separate being.

    1 John 1:3 In his epistles, John speaks about fellowship with the Father, the Son, and with each other, but doesn't even mention the Holy Spirit.

      "what we have seen and heard we proclaim to you also, so that you too may have fellowship with us; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ. (1 John 1:3 NASB)

 

Continue On To Part III - The Grammar. Although the Bible undeniably attributes Divinity to the Holy Spirit, the question of the Holy Spirit being the coequal third person of the trinity is not set in stone as orthodox doctrine would have us believe.

New Testament grammar is often used by many evangelicals as the first line of defense against any challenges to the doctrine. The problem is that the grammar cannot necessarily be used to support the idea that the Holy Spirit is a "he", much less the third Person of the Trinity. Doctrinal bias, not grammatical accuracy, is responsible for referring to the Holy Spirit with masculine rather than neuter pronouns when both are equally legitimate. HERE/

www.inplainsite.org

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The Trinity - Part I Historical  Background