The Name Jehovah
Why does the WT call God "Jehovah" when YHWH is not used anywhere in the New Testament? Why didn’t either Jesus and Paul or the early church writers ever call God "Jehovah"? (it does not appear in the oldest Greek manuscripts of New Testament writings or in the very first Bible, the 5th century Latin Vulgate) Since Jesus taught that we can address God as “Father” (Mt 6:8-18, 7:21, Mk 14:36, etc), doesn’t this mean that the term “Jehovah” is not the only expression by which we can address God? Since “Jehovah” comes from an aberration of the tetragrameton “YHWH”, wouldn’t “Yahweh”, which many Christians use and which is used in some Bibles (e.g. The New Jerusalem Bible) be a much more accurate name to use?
The Holy Spirit
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal "active force"…
Why does he speak directly and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
How could he: Be referred to as "he" and "him" in John 16:7- 8 and John 16:13-14; Bear witness (John 15:26, Acts 20:23);
Feel hurt (Isaiah 63:10);
Be blasphemed against (Mk 3:29, Luke 12:10);
Say things (Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, and Hebrews 10:15-17);
Forbid someone to say things (Acts 16:6);
Plead for us with groanings (Rom 8:26);
Be tested (Acts 5:9); Send people (Acts 13:4);
Be a helper (John 14:16, 16:7);
Appoint overseers (Acts 20:28);
Be outraged (Hebrews 10:29);
Desire (Gal 5:17); Search (1Cor 2:10);
Comfort (Acts 9:31);
Be grieved (Eph 4:30);
Be loved (Rom 15:30);
Be lied to and be God (Acts 5:3-4)?
Jesus / Michael
In Mt 4:10, Jesus clearly has the authority to rebuke Satan and does so. Jude 9 says, “But when Michael the archangel had a difference with the Devil…he did not dare to bring a judgment against him, but said, “May Jehovah rebuke you.” If Jesus is Michael the Archangel, why did Michael, refuse to rebuke Satan in Jude 9, when he clearly did so in Mt 4:10?
The WTS teaches that Jesus is the first and greatest creation of God. If Jesus was Michael the Archangel before he became a man, then why does Dan 10:13 refer to Michael as “ONE of the foremost princes” implying that he was equal to other angels?
If Jesus was Michael the Archangel before his birth, then how do you explain Hebrews 1:13 which says, “But with reference to which one of the angels has he ever said: “Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet”? If Jesus became Michael the Archangel upon his resurrection, why did none of the New Testament writers refer to the resurrected Christ as “Michael” by name? Can you point out one verse, just one, that says that Jesus and Michael are the same?
I Corinthians 1:2 tells us to “call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord." Would you pray to an angel?
I Timothy 2:5 says there is “one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus”. How can an angel mediate between God and man.
Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus says, "... ALL [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus were Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isaiah 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...” Why does the NWT add the word “[other]” even though it does not appear in the original Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear.
Worship of Jesus
Why does the WT change "worship" in Hebrewsrews 1:8 in the 1961 NWT edition, to "do obeisance" in the 1971 NWT edition? The WT translates "proskuneo" as worship when it applies to God, angels, devils, antichrist and images, but when "proskuneo" is used to worship Christ as God, they translate it as "do obeisance"
Is it Divine worship of the Father when Peter concludes His prayer in I Peter 5:10,11 with "To him be glory and dominion forever and ever, Amen." Why is the same doxology given to the "Son" in II Timothy 4:18; I Peter 4:11; II Peter 3:18 and Revelation 1:5,6.
[Also See The Deity of Jesus Christ. Was He Lord, Liar Or Lunatic?
The New Testament abounds with so much proof of the deity of Jesus Christ, that it is bewildering to hear it repudiated by so many who claim to believe in the Bible. If our entire future hinges on our knowing God, and the Messiah whom He sent, then we have to know who this Messiah was.
Jesus / God
In Revelation 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself," I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Revelation 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first and the last. Revelation 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end .,.". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isaiah 44:6 and Isaiah 48:12. How can Jesus and Jehovah both be the “alpha and omega” and “the first and the last” since by definition of these words there can only be one Alpha and Omega and only one first and one last?
John 1:1 reads “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was god”. However the New World Translation has altered this passage to read -- "In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god”. , Yet in John 1:6, 12, 13 18 where "theos" also has no definite Greek article, they translate it as "God" every time?
If Jesus is not God, then why would he have deceived the Jews by making himself “equal to God” in John 5:17-18?
The WT insists that Christ is first created, when the meaning of "firstborn" (Gk: "prototokos) means "pre-eminent or ruler"? David (Psalm 89:27), Ephraim (Genesis 41:50-52 and Jeremiah 31:9), Jacob (Exodus 4:22), and Solomon (I Chronicles 3:2) were all called "firstborn", but none of them were born first. Why? Because "firstborn" can mean "chief", as with Christ, and not first created.
Why does the WT break the Granville-Sharp rule* of the Greek grammar for Titus 2:13 and II Peter 1:1, "...of God and our Savior, Jesus Christ", which show Jesus Christ and God to be one and the same person? Yet they always get the rule right where the Deity of Christ is not an issue (such as in II Peter 1:11, 2:20, 3:2, 3:18; I Peter 1:3 and Ephesians 1:3)?
* Granville Sharp's Rule states that when you have two nouns, which are not proper names (such as Cephas, or Paul, or Timothy), which are describing a person, and the two nouns are connected by the word "and," and the first noun has the article ("the") while the second does not, *both nouns are referring to the same person*. This rule is very important in translating and understanding Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 (as well as other passages).As these passages bear directly on the discussion of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, Christians should be informed on the subject. [Granville Sharp’s Rule – Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 – Vintage. Alpha and Omega Ministries. http://www.aomin.org/aoblog/index.php/2012/12/18/granville-sharps-rule-titus-213-and-2-peter-11-vintage/]
Why does the WT translate the New Testament word for Lord (ie. "Kurios") as Jehovah, except where it proves Christ is God? For example, "Jesus Christ is Lord" in Philippians 2:11 and "Jesus is Lord" in I Corinthians 12:3.
Why does the WT add "other" four times in Colossians 1:16, 17 and in Philippians 2:9 to deny Christ's deity, when "other" is not in any New Testament manuscripts?
In Isaiah 9:6, Jesus Christ is called the "everlasting Father" meaning "Father of Eternity". Only God can be the possessor, or Father of Eternity. Doesn't this make Christ to be God?
Since Jehovah is called "Mighty God" (Isaiah 10:21) just as Jesus is called "Mighty God" (Isaiah 9:6), doesn't this mean that Jesus is Jehovah? And not a lesser deity?
According to the NWT “Jehovah” is the name, which brings salvation (Acts 2:21), but Acts 4:10-12 says that ONLY the name of Jesus brings salvation (“…for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved.”)?
John 5:23 says, “in order that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father…” If Jesus is not God, why does the Bible require that all men should honor the Son equally with the Father?
Isaiah 42:8 says, “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory…”. Similarly, Isaiah 48:11 says, “… and to no one else shall I give my own glory.” Yet Jesus said in John 17:5, “so now you, father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was”?
Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6… "For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us... And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father...". Jehovah God is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isaiah 10:20-21.
Comparisons Between What The Bible says about God and Jesus
The heavens are the work of God’s hands (Ps 102:25); the heavens are the work of Jesus’ hand (Hebrews 1:10).
God laid the foundations of the earth (Isaiah 48:13), Jesus laid the foundations of the earth (Hebrews 1:10); God is our judge (Psalm 50:6, Eccl 12:14, 1 Chronicles 16:33), Jesus is our judge (2Tim 4:1, Revelation 20:12).
God is the temple of the New Jerusalem (Revelation 21:22); Jesus (the Lamb) is the temple of the New Jerusalem (Revelation 21:22).
God is the alpha and omega (Revelation 1:8); Jesus is the alpha and omega (Revelation 22:13).
God is the first and last (Isaiah 44:6, 48:12), Jesus is the first and last (Revelation 22:13).
God is the beginning and the end (Revelation 21:6); Jesus is the beginning and the end (Revelation 22:13).
Only God can forgive sins (Luke 5:21), Jesus forgives sins (Luke 5:20).
God is our hope (Ps 71:5); Jesus is our hope (1Tim 1:1).
God is eternal (Deut 33:27), Jesus is eternal (Isaiah 9:6, Hebrews 1:10-11); God will come with all the holy ones (Zech 14:5), Jesus will come with all the holy ones (1Thess 3:13).
Only God is our savior (Isaiah 43:11), Jesus is our savior (Tit 2:13, 2Pet 1:1).
God is the creator of the universe (Isaiah 44:24, Jeremiah 27:5); Jesus is the creator of the universe (John 1:3).
To God, every knee will bow and every tongue confess (Isaiah 45:22-23), to Jesus, every knee will bow and every tongue confess (Phil 2:10-11).
God is the same and his years will have no end (Ps 102:27), Jesus is the same and his years will have no end (Hebrews 1:12).
God is immutable (Malachi 3:6), Jesus is immutable (Hebrews 13:8); God is over all (Ps 97:9), Jesus is over all (John 3:31).
The spirit of God dwells in us (Romans 8:9), the spirit of Jesus dwells in us (Gal 4:6).
God is a stone of offense and a stumbling block (Isaiah 8:14), Jesus is a stone of offense and a stumbling block (1Pet 2:8).
God was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Zech 11:12-13); Jesus was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Mt 26:14-16).
God is our shepherd (Ps 23:1); Jesus is our shepherd (John 10:11, 1Pet 5:4, Hebrews 13:20).
God is Mighty God (Isaiah 10:21); Jesus is Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6).
God is Lord of Lords (Deut 10:17, Ps 136:3); Jesus is Lord of Lords (Revelation 17:14).
God is our only Rock (Isaiah 44:8, Ps 18:2, 94:22); Jesus is our rock (1 Cor 10:4).
God is our owner (Isaiah 54:5); Jesus is our only owner (Jude 4).
No one can snatch us out of God’s hand (Deuteronomy 32:39); no one can snatch us out of Jesus’ hand (John 10:28).
God is the horn of salvation (2 Samuel 22:3); Jesus is the horn of salvation (Luke 1:68-9).
God renders according to our works (Ps 62:12), Jesus renders according to our works (Mt 16:27, Revelation 22:12).
God loves and corrects (Prov 3:12), Jesus loves and corrects (Revelation 3:19).
God’s words will stand forever (Isaiah 40:8); Jesus’ words will stand forever (Mt 24:35).
God is the eternal light (Isaiah 60:19); Jesus is the eternal light (John 8:12, Revelation 21:23).
God seeks to save the lost (Ezek 34:16); Jesus seeks to save the lost (Luke 19:10).
Paul is a slave of God (Tit 1:1); Paul is a slave of Jesus (Romans 1:1) even though no man can slave for two masters (Mt 6:24).
God raised Jesus from the dead (Gal 1:1); Jesus raised himself from the dead (John 2:19-21);
God is our guide (Ps 48:14); Jesus is our guide (Luke 1:79).
God is our deliverer (Ps 70:5, 2 Samuel 22:2); Jesus is our deliverer (Rom 11:26).
God is called God (Isaiah 44:8); Jesus is called God (Isaiah 9:6, John 20:28).
God is the King of Israel (Isaiah 44:6); Jesus is the King of Israel (Mt 27:42, John 1:49).
Praying To Jesus
Romans 10:12 says, “…for there is the same Lord (Jesus vs. 9) over all, who is rich to all those CALLING UPON him.” If Jesus is not to be prayed to, then why does Paul say that they will be rich who call “upon him”? Similarly, Paul says in 1Cor 1:2, “…together with all who everywhere are calling upon the name of our Lord, Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours” and in 2 Timothy 2:22 he says, “…but pursue righteousness, faith, love, peace, along with those who CALL UPON THE LORD out of a clean heart.” If Christians should not pray to Jesus, then why did the early Christians “call upon” Jesus? How can a person call upon Jesus without praying to him? [ See The Deity of Jesus Christ. Was He Lord, Liar Or Lunatic?
When Jesus said, "Unless anyone is born again, he cannot see the Kingdom of God (John 3:3 NWT), he did not allow for any exceptions.
In I John 5:1 NWT: "Everyone believing that Jesus is the Christ has been born from God", does the expression "everyone believing" leave any believers out? (No).
In Galatians 4:5-6, the NWT states that Christ came "that we.... might receive the adoption as sons. Now because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, and it cries out "Abba, Father". Have you been adopted as a son of God, by receiving the Spirit of Christ into your heart, as shown here?
In the light of Romans 8:9, where the NWT states that "Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his” can you reach any other conclusion that you cannot please God (v.8), and that you do not belong to Christ (v.9)? [Also See Born Again]
Why does WT ignore the following verses in saying that we don't go to heaven? Colossians 1:5; Hebrews 10:34; I Peter 1:4; Revelation 19:1; Matthew 6:20; John 12:26, 14:3; Hebrews 3:1; II Corinthians 5:1.
The WTS claims that Ezekiel's prophecy of the Jews returning to their land is fulfilled in their organization. Ezek 36:24, 28 says "And I will take you out of the nations and collect you together out of all the lands and bring you in upon your own soil." and "And you will certainly dwell in the land that I gave to your forefathers, and you must become my people and I myself shall become your God." If this is fulfilled in the Watchtower organization, then how are they returning to the land of Canaan as promised to the forefathers (Ps 105:8-11)?
Consider also what is said concerning those who fulfill this prophecy. Ezek 36:22 says, "Therefore say to the house of Israel, ‘This is what the sovereign Lord Jehovah has said: “not for your sakes I am doing [it], 0 house of Israel, but for my holy name, which you have PROFANED among the nations where you have come in." Since the WTS claims that it is spiritual Israel and fulfils these prophecies in Ezekiel, how do Jehovah's Witnesses believe they have profaned God's name “among the nations”?
Why does WT regard 144,000 as a literal number, but regards 12,000 from each of the 12 tribes of Israel as figurative? (see Revelation 7:1-8, 14:1-5).
The WTS teaches that the 144,000 of Revelation 7:4 and Revelation 14:3 is to be taken literally. If these passages in scripture are to be taken literally, then the 144,000 are all literally male (Revelation 14:4), Jewish (Revelation 7:4-8), virgins (Revelation 14:4). Was Charles Taze Russell a Jewish virgin? Are all women excluded from this number? Are any of the other 144,000 people included in this number Jewish virgins? If not, then how can this passage, including the number 144,000, be taken literally? What justification is there for switching methods of interpretation from literal, in the case of Revelation 7:4 and 14:3, to figurative in the very next verse(s)?
The Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven, yet Hebrews 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mark 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother..." Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling
Hebrews 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and,"... their God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Hebrews 12:22 and Revelation 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died? [For Detailed Informations, See The 144,000 ]
Spirit, Soul and Body
The WTS teaches that an immortal soul does not continue to live on after death of the body and that there is no conscious awareness after death. Yet...
In Luke 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)", since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
Moses and Elijah not only appeared to Peter, James, and John but actually conversed with Jesus (Mt 17:3)?
In John 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?
If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Revelation 6:9-11, who were of those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord..."?
If the human soul is the person, how could the soul go out of a person’s body (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person’s body (1 Kings 17:21)?
In Luke 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?
If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could Jesus, who was in heaven, receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to exist when the body dies and if no one could enter heaven until the year 1914?
If the soul ceases to exist after the death of the body, why does Paul say that he would rather be “absent from the body” so he could go make his “home with the Lord” (2 Corinthians 5:8), and why would he say that he would rather depart from this life so that he could go be with Christ (Phil 1:23)? How could Paul be “with Christ” and make his “home with the Lord” if no one could enter heaven until 1914?
If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28? Similarly, if the soul is the body, why does Paul make a distinction between the “spirit and soul and body of you” in 1Thess 5:23? In addition, the NWT renders 2 Timothy 4:22 as, “The Lord [be] with the spirit you [show]…”even though the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT) translates the Greek phrase “sou pneuma” as “the spirit of you”. Why is there a difference between the KIT and the NWT rendition of this verse? Why does the NWT add the word “[show]” when it does not appear in the Greek? Wouldn’t the KIT version be a much simpler and straightforward rendition of this verse? If the KIT version is used, what does this verse say about the “spirit” of a person?
Referring to Isaiah 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] ‘Is this the man...’" (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening? [See More About Sheol]
Destruction of the Earth
If the present earth will never be destroyed or depopulated, why does Zeph 1:2-3 say, “I shall without fail finish everything off the surface of the ground,’ is the utterance of Jehovah. ‘I shall finish off earthling man and beast… and I will cut off mankind from the surface of the ground, is the utterance of Jehovah”? The Hebrews word translated here as “finish off” in the NWT is “cuwph” (Strong’s # 05486) which means “to cease; to come to an end”, according to Strong’s Hebrews Dictionary. How can this be if the WTS is correct and faithful Witnesses will survive Armageddon and live forever in paradise on the present earth?
Isaiah 65:17 says, “For here I am creating new heavens and a NEW earth, and the former things will not be called to mind…” If the present earth will never be destroyed, why will God be “creating” a “new” earth? Notice that this verse does not say “cleanse”, but “create”.
2 Peter 3:10-13 says, “Yet Jehovah’s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass a way with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and the earth and the works in it will be discovered. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought you to be… through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt! But there are new heavens and a NEW EARTH that we are awaiting, according to his promise…” How can people live forever in paradise on this present earth, if the earth will “be dissolved” and “melt” and if we are awaiting a “new” earth?
God says in Isaiah 51:6, "... the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants themselves will die like a mere gnat...". John says in Revelation 21:1 that he saw "... a new heaven and a NEW earth; for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is NO MORE."? The Bible say that “the earth itself…will perish” (Ps 102:25-26, Hebrews 1:10-11), and why does Jesus himself say that “Heaven and EARTH will pass away…” (Mt 24:35, Mk 13:31, Luke 21:33)? Conversely, in Eccl 1:4, Solomon says, “A generation is going and a generation is coming; but the earth is standing even to time indefinite.” But didn’t Solomon write this scripture at a time in his life when he had ceased to serve the Lord and therefore wrote only his own thoughts from a very humanistic point of view? In Eccl 1:2, he states, “Everything is vanity!” And in vs. 8 he says, “All things are wearisome”. Since obviously not “everything” is vanity and not “all things” are wearisome to a true Christian, doesn’t this show that Solomon was speaking for himself and doesn’t this whole passage just show the futility of man without God?
The Bible says in Zeph 1:18, “…but by the fire of his zeal the whole earth will be devoured, because he will make an extermination, indeed a terrible one, of ALL the inhabitants of the earth.” Why does the Bible say that the “whole earth” will be “devoured”, and “all” the inhabitants of the earth will be exterminated? How can a great crowd of people continue to live on forever in paradise on earth after Armageddon if “ALL the inhabitants of the earth” will be exterminated? [See That Earth-Shaking Seventh Trumpet ]
Is it true that the WTS's prophecy that Armageddon will come before "the end of the generation of 1914" (You Can Live Forever In Paradise On Earth, pg 154), is no longer taught as "the Truth"? If so, then does this mean that this teaching of the WTS, which they have taught as "the Truth" for decades, was really a false teaching? Since the WTS claims that they are the "one channel that the Lord is using during the last days of this system of things" (Jehovah's Witnesses-Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg 626) and that the governing body is "the mouthpiece of Jehovah God", does this mean that God changed His mind about this teaching and the definition of "generation"? The WTS has taught that Armageddon was going to occur in:
1914 - The Time Is At Hand, 1888 (1911 ed.), pg 101; Zion 's Watchtower, 1/15/1892, pg 22
1915 - The Time Is At Hand, 1915 edition, pg. 99
1918 - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg 62, 485
1925 - Millions Now Living Will Never Die, 1920, pg 89-90, Watchtower, 7/15/24, pg 211
1931 - Vindication, Book 1, pg. 147
WWII - Watchtower, 9/15/41, pg 288
1975 - Kingdom Ministry, 6/69, pg 3; AWAKE!, 10/8/68, etc.
”Before the end of the generation of 1914” - You Can Live Forever In Paradise On Earth, pg 154
Since the WTS has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their views on this, does this mean that all the former Witnesses who were dis-fellowshipped years ago for the same view the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted back into fellowship again? Were these ex-Witnesses in fact dis-fellowshipped for what is now taught as "the Truth"?
The WTS book You Can Live Forever in Paradise on Earth states on page 147, “Bible evidence shows that in the year 1914 C.E. God’s time arrived for Christ to return and begin ruling.” It also states “In the same way, Christ’s return does not mean that he literally comes back to this earth. Rather, it means that he takes Kingdom power toward this earth and turns his attention to it.” In 1Cor 11:26, Paul writes, "For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives." If Christ “arrived” in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to partake of the bread and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
Why would anyone willingly follow an organization that has repeatedly proven its self to be a false prophet, according to biblical standards? Since God does not lie or change his mind (Numbers 23:19, Psalm 89:34, Hebrews 6:18), and since it is clear that the WTS could not have possibly been speaking for God when they made these false prophecies, then how do you know that the WTS is speaking for God now? See Zeph 3:13 and Isaiah 28:15.
The Second Coming
This event is described in Zechariah 14:4, which states, "And his feet will actually stand in that day upon the mountain of the olive trees which is in front of Jerusalem on the east…" If Jesus has no body and if he will not literally come back to earth, as only the WTS teaches, how do you explain this verse? In addition, Zech 14:3 says that it is Jehovah’s feet that will stand upon the mountain of the olive trees. Since Jesus is the one who is coming, how can this be unless Jesus and Jehovah are one and the same? Similarly, if Christ will not have a visible return to earth, but returned invisibly in 1914, then how was he seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30), and by "EVERY eye" (Revelation 1:7) when he returned? How can Christ "APPEAR" a second time (Hebrews 9:28) if he will not have a visible “return” to earth?
Acts 1:11 says, “This Jesus who was received up from the you (apostles) into the sky will come thus in the same manner as you have beheld him going into the sky.” If Jesus physically and in plain view ascended to heaven, then how can Jesus have an “invisible” return to earth if his return will be “in the same manner” as his ascension?
Zechariah 2:10-12 says, “Cry out loudly and rejoice, O daughter of Zion; for here I am coming, and I will reside in the midst of you”, is the utterance of Jehovah…And you will have to know that Jehovah of armies himself has sent me to you. And Jehovah will certainly take possession of Judah…and he must yet choose Jerusalem.” If Jesus and Jehovah are not one and the same God, then how do you explain the fact that Christ is the one who is “coming” and “will reside in the midst of you”, but in this passage, Jehovah claims that he is the one who is coming and will reside in their midst? How do you explain the fact that “Jehovah of armies” is sending him (Jehovah) to reside in their midst?
The WTS once taught that:
The second presence of Christ started in 1874 (WT, 11/1/22, pgs 332-337; Prophecy, 1929, pg 65-66);
Vaccinations never saved a human life, doesn’t prevent smallpox, and are condemned (Golden Age, Feb 4, 1931, pg 293-4);
The great pyramid of Egypt is a witness of the Lord (WT May 15, 1925 pgs 148-9).
God governs the universe from a star called Alcyone (Thy Kingdom Come, 1903 Ed, pg 327).
The Leviathan of the Bible is the steam locomotive (The Finished Mystery, pg 84-86);
Tonsillectomy is condemned; better to commit suicide than have a tonsillectomy (GA, April 7, 1926, pg 438);
In the new world, Abraham will rule New York City (GA, Oct 5, 1927, pg 26/29);
The black race originated with Noah’s curse upon Canaan (GA, Jul 24, 1929, pg 702);
Jews are no longer important to God (Vindication, Vol. 2, pg 257-258);
God wears clothes (GA, May 19, 1926, pg 534);
The WTS stands for the principles of Nazi Germany (Yearbook 1934, pg 134-137);
Aspirin is the menace of heart disease (GA, Feb 27, 1935, pg 343-4);
Do not use X-rays (GA, Sept 23, 1936, pg 828);
In 1938, people should not get married (Face the Facts, pg 46-50);
Organ transplants were condemned as cannibalistic (WT, Nov 15, 1967, pg 702-4)?
Since the WTS prohibits the use of blood transfusions, why does it permit the infusion of albumin, clotting factors, and gamma globulins, all of which are components of human blood and are derived from human blood?
Since Acts 15:29 clearly refers to the old Jewish law of not EATING blood (Gen 9:4, Lev 3:17, Deut 12:16), and since the WTS has changed its teachings on other major health related issues like vaccinations, organ transplantations, and its opposition to tonsillectomies (Golden Age, 4/7/26, pg 438), etc. and simply calls these changes "New Light", how can you be sure they won't some day change their teachings on blood transfusions and refer to that change as "New Light" also?
The WTS claims that Jerusalem was destroyed in 607 B.C.E. and uses Dan 4:23-25, Revelation 12:6, 14, Num 14:34, and Ezek 4:6 to come up with 1914 C.E., which is 2,520 years later, as the year that Jesus began his reign in heaven. If the WTS’s claim that Jerusalem was destroyed in 607 B.C.E. is correct, then why is it that every reference source, including the Encyclopedia Britannica, Microsoft Encarta, The World Book Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Americana, Compton’s Encyclopedia, Academic American Encyclopedia, Cambridge Ancient History – Vol. III, The Oxford Dictionary of World History, etc, etc, all state that Jerusalem was destroyed in 586 BC? If the WTS is correct that Christ’s reign in heaven started 2,520 years after the destruction of Jerusalem, shouldn’t this event have occurred in 1935 instead of 1914? Should we view the overwhelming opinion of essentially every historian who is an expert on ancient history, or the WTS, as unreliable?
The Finished Mystery
On pgs. 66, 69, 211, 423, 560, 648, and 719 of Jehovah's Witnesses--Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, reference is made to The Finished Mystery, which was the 7th of the Studies in the Scriptures series published by the WTS in 1917 (pg 66, 719), and was the major publication of the WTS at that time. On pgs. 88, 648, and 651, a picture of this book appears, complete with the winged disk symbol of the Egyptian sun god Ra on its front cover.
Is it true that The Finished Mystery taught
That Christ is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, and the Almighty of Revelation 1:8 (pg 15),
That Christ established a "Church" (pg 17),
That Christ returned invisibly in 1874 (pg 54, 60, 68),
That Armageddon was definitely going to occur in the spring of 1918 (pg 62 and 128),
That the Holy Spirit has a personality (pg 57),
That the great pyramid of Giza was God's stone witness and was used to predict the year of Armageddon (pg 60),
That Christ was crucified (pg 68),
That Hebrews 1:6 is translated, “Let all the angels of God worship him” (pg 104),
That Leviathan of the Bible refers to the steam locomotive (pg 85),
That Michael is the Pope of Rome and the angels are his bishops (pg 188),
That Nah 2:3-6 describes the railway train (pg 93),
That the great earthquake of Revelation 6:12 refers literally to the Lisbon earthquake of Nov 1, 1775, and it refers symbolically to the American Revolution (pg 119),
That the sun becoming black in Revelation 6:12 refers literally to a dark day which occurred on May 19, 1780, and refers symbolically to the light of the papal heavens darkened when Napoleon fined the Pope 10 million dollars and took the Pope a prisoner to France (pg 120),
That Christ is eternal, “the same yesterday, today, and forever. – Hebrews 13:8” (pg 142),
That the Seventh Volume of Studies in the Scriptures (also known as The Finished Mystery) is “Divinely provided” (pg 145)? 3
Early Church Fathers
On page 7 of the booklet Should You Believe in the Trinity?, unreferenced quotes from Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, Hippolytus, and Origen are made. Why are these quotes unreferenced? Also on page 7 of this same booklet, the statement is made, "Thus, the testimony of the Bible and of history makes it clear that the Trinity was unknown throughout Biblical times and for SEVERAL CENTURIES thereafter." Based on the quotes below, how can the Watchtower Society make these claims?
Justin Martyr (110-165 AD):
"... nor to know that the Father of the universe has a Son; who also, being the first-begotten Word of God, is even God." - First Apology of Justin, Ch LXIII; "
... but now you will permit me first to recount the prophecies, which I wish to do in order to prove that Christ is called both God and the Lord of hosts ..." - Dialogue with Trypho, Ch XXXVI;
"Therefore these words testify explicitly that He is witnessed to by Him who established these things, as deserving to be worshipped, as God and as Christ." - Ibid, Ch LXIII.
Irenaeus (120-202 AD):
"... and to raise up anew all flesh of the whole human race, in order that to Christ Jesus, our Lord, and God, and Saviour, and King ..." - Against Heresies, Bk 1, Ch 10;
"But that He is in His own right , beyond all men who ever lived, God, and Lord, and King Eternal, and the Incarnate Word, proclaimed by all the prophets and apostles, and by the Spirit Himself, may be seen by all who have attained to even a small portion of the truth." - Against Heresies, Bk 3, Ch 19.
Clement of Alexandria (153-217 AD):
"For 'before the morning star it was;' and 'in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'" and "This Word, then, the Christ, the cause of both our being at first (for He was in God) and of our well being, this very Word has now appeared as man, He alone being both, both God and man ..." and "The Word, who in the beginning bestowed on us life as Creator when He formed us, taught us to live well when He appeared as our Teacher; that as God He might afterwards conduct us to the life which never ends." - Exhortation to the Heathen, Ch 1.
Tertullian (145-220 AD):
"Him we believe to have been sent by the Father into the virgin, and to have been born of her - being both Man and God, the Son of Man and the Son of God, and to have been called by the name of Jesus Christ." and "... while the mystery of the dispensation is still guarded, which distributes the Unity into a Trinity, placing them in their order the three Persons - the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost ..." - Against Praxeas, Ch 2;
"With these did He then speak, in the Unity of the Trinity, as with His ministers and witnesses." and "...I mean the Word of God, 'through whom all things were made, and without whom nothing was made.' Now if He too is God, according to John (who says) 'The Word was God'..." - Against Praxeas, Ch 12.
Hippolytus (170-236 AD):
"For he speaks to this effect: 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'" and "...'Go ye and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.' And by this He showed, that whosoever omitted any one of these, failed in glorifying God perfectly. For it is through this Trinity that the Father is glorified. For the Father willed, the Son did, the Spirit manifested. The whole Scriptures, then, proclaim this truth." - Against the Heresy of One Noetus, Ch 14;
"For Christ is the God above all, and He has arranged to wash away sin from human beings." - The Refutation of All Heresies, Bk 10, Ch 30.
Origen (185-254 AD):
"From all which we learn that the person of the Holy Spirit was of such authority and dignity, that saving baptism was not complete except by the authority of the most excellent Trinity of them all ..." - Origen de Principiis, 1.3.2; "
For it is one and the same thing to have a share in the Holy Spirit, which is (the Spirit) of the Father and the Son, since the nature of the Trinity is one and incorporeal." - Origen de Principiis, 4.1.32
In PlainSite.org Note: The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures is published by Jehovah's Witnesses and contains The New Testament in the original Greek on the left- hand side of the page. A literal word-for-word English translation is found under the lines of Greek text. In the narrow right-hand column is the New World Translation, which allows you to compare the interlinear translation with a modern English translation...
The forward to the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT), 1985 edition, on page 8 states, “Our primary desire has been to seek not the approval of men but that of God, by rendering the truth of his inspired Word as purely and as consistently as our dedicated abilities make possible. There is no benefit in self-deception." On page 9 it is stated, "We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor throughout has been to give as literal a translation as possible where the modern English idiom allows for it or where the thought content is not hidden due to any awkwardness in the literal rendition. In this way, we can best meet the desire of those who are scrupulous for getting, as nearly as possible word for word, the exact statement of the original."
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “heos” (Strong’s # 2193) means “till, until”. Yet the mistranslates the Greek word “heos” in Mt 5:18 as “sooner would” instead of “until”, completely changing the meaning of this verse. If the Greek word “heos” was translated correctly as “until” in this verse, what would this verse say about the future of this present earth?
The NWT adds the word “[the]” to the phrase “of our God and savior Jesus Christ” in 2Pet 1:1. 2Pet 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, which contain the same exact phrase in the Greek with the exception that these verses contain the word “lord” (kyrios) instead of the word “God” (Theos), don’t have the word “[the]” added to them. See Greek-English Interlinear. How would 2 Pet 1:1 read if it had been translated the same way as 2 Peter 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, and the word “[the]” had not been added?
The NWT translates the Greek word esti as "is" every time it appears in the New Testament (e.g., Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Luke 22:38, etc), except in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Luke 22:19 where it is rendered as “means”, even though this word is translated as “is” in the Kingdom Interlinear. If the NWT were consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
Why does the twice add the words “relation to” in Mt 5:19, when this phrase does not exist in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. How would this verse read if the phrase “relation to” had not been added to it and what would this say about who can enter the kingdom of heaven? If only 144,000 people will go to heaven, why does scripture say in this verse that “ANYONE who does them (the commandments) and teaches them…” will be called great “in the kingdom of the heavens.”?
The NWT translates the Greek word “Theos” in John 1:1c as “a god”, but translates this same exact Greek word as “God” everywhere else it appears, (e.g., John 3:2, 3:16, 3:17, 3:33, 3:34, 4:24, 6:27, 8:54, etc), including John 20:28 where this word explicitly refers to Jesus. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of “Theos” in John 1:1c? If “Theos” was translated as “God” in John 1:1c like it is translated everywhere else it appears in the NWT, how would John 1:1 read and what would it say about the nature of Christ?
Similarly, the Greek word “Theon” is translated in the NWT as “God” in almost every instance (e.g., MLuke22:37, Luke 10:27, John 1:1b, 8:41, 14:1, 17:3, 1 John 4:7, 4:12, 5:2, Revelation 14:7, etc), but in John 10:33 it is translated as “a god”. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of the word “Theon”? If “Theon” was translated as “God” in John 10:33, how would this verse read and what would it say about the nature of Christ? What did Jesus say in this passage that made the Jews want to kill him? See John 10:30-31. The phrase “Son of God” in theological language is a Semitic term which means “having the same nature as God”, or being God, just as the term “Son of man” means “having the same nature as a man”, or being a man. Since blasphemy is one of the few offenses in Jewish law for which a person may be stoned to death, wouldn’t this claim of Christ, that he is the Son of God, qualify as a blasphemous statement to the Jews, and wasn’t this the reason they wanted to kill him by stoning him to death (John 10:31, 36-39)?
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" () as "I am" every time it appears in the New Testament (e.g., John 6:35, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in John 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible what is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in John 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would John 8:58 read and what would this verse say about the nature of ChriExeo See Exodus 3:14 in every version of the Bible except the NWT. Why is this phrase, “ego eimi” translated as “I am” in the KIT, but “I have been” in the NWT? Since “I am” is present tense, and “I have been” is past tense, which tense is correct? If the “translators” of the NWT were Greek scholars, shouldn’t they have known which tense “ego eimi” is?
Almost every time the Greek word “ginosko” (Strong’s # 1097) is used in the New Testament, the NWT translates it as “know” or “known” (e.g., 1Cor 8:3, Gal 4:9, John 10:14, John 10:27, etc). However, in John 17:3, this same Greek word is rendered as “taking in knowledge of”. What is the reason for the inconsistency of the translation of this word in John 17:3 by the NWT? If the NWT were consistent and translated this word in John 17:3 the same way it is translated in the other verses in which it appears, how would this verse read? In addition, the Kingdom Interlinear translates this word as “they may be KNOWING” instead of “their taking in knowledge” as it is translated in the NWT. Why the inconsistency in translation between the KIT and the NWT? If this word was translated in this verse like it is translated in the other verses in which it appears, how would this verse read? How could a person come to “know” Jesus Christ unless they have a relationship with him? How could a person have a relationship with Christ unless they communicate with Jesus through prayer?
Why does the add the word “[Son]” in Acts 20:28 when this word does not exist in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear.
In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "[other]" even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek. See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why does the WTS alter scripture by adding the word “[other]” to this verse? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Exodus 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isaiah 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name, instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Luke 21:12,17, John 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
The NWT translates Mt 25:46 as, “And these will depart into everlasting cutting-off…”. The Greek word that is translated as “cutting-off” is “kolasis” (Strong # 2851). According to Strong’s Greek dictionary, this word can only mean “correction, punishment, or penalty”, but no reference is made to “cutting-off”. If the word “kolasis” was translated correctly as “correction, punishment, or penalty”, as it should be according to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, how would this verse read?
Why does the NWT add the words “itself” and “[true]” in Eccl 12:7 when these words don’t exist in the Hebrewsrew? How would this verse read without the addition of these words? If what the WTS teaches about the spirit of man is correct, then how can the “spirit” of a man return to God after the body dies and returns to the earth?
In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" () is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Revelation 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, John 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Luke 24:52, Hebrews 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "proskunhsan" used with reference to God in Revelation 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and the same exact word used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
Why does the NWT alter the word of God by adding the word “[others]” in Acts 10:36 when this word does not appear in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. How would this verse read if the word “[others]” had not been added to it? What does the word “all” mean to you?
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “theotes” (Strong’s # 2320) used only once in the Bible in Col 2:9, is translated as “the state of being God, Godhead”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it mistranslate this Greek word “theotes” as “divine quality” in Col 2:9, instead of “Godhead”?
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “klao” (Strong’s # 2806) means “to break; used in the NT of the breaking of bread or communion” and the Greek word “artos” (Strong’s # 740) means “food made with flour mixed with water and baked” or “bread”. Jesus himself used these same words “”klao” and “artos” in Luke 22:19 at the Last Supper and Paul also uses these words in 1Cor 11:23-24. In these verses, the NWT translates these words accurately as “broke” and “loaf”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why then does it translate the Greek phrase “klao artos” of Acts 2:46 and Acts 20:7, as “took their meals” and “have a meal”, instead of the much more accurate “break bread”? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, what is the reason for the inconsistency of the translation of these words between Luke 22:19 and Acts 2:46, 20:7? In Acts 2:46, how often did the early Christians meet to break bread?
According to Strong’s Hebrewsrew Dictionary, the Hebrewsrew word “ruwach” (Strong’s # 07307) used in Gen 1:2 means “spirit”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it mistranslate this word as “active force”? Similarly, in 1 John 4:1, the NWT translates the Greek word “pneuma” as “divine expressions” even though this same Greek word is translated as “spirit” in 1John 3:24, 1John 4:2,3, and 6. Why the inconsistency in the translation of this word? Isn’t John's whole point here that even though the Spirit's presence in us gives us assurance of God's love, we are not to believe every "spirit" that claims to be from God, but test them by the teachings which their prophets espouse, "because many false prophets have gone out into the world"? Is the NWT obscuring this point in order to avoid the implication that God’s "spirit" is a person rather than a force (just as the demonic "spirits" are personal entities and not impersonal forces). In addition, in 1Tim 4:1, the NWT translates the simple Greek word “pneuma” as “inspired utterance”, instead of “spirit”. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation of the word “pneuma”? Is it because a straightforward “the spirit says” would too obviously imply the personality of the Holy Spirit?
Why does the NWT translate the very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in Col 2:7, Col 2:9, Mt 14:2, Mk 6:14, Luke 23:22, John 4:14, Acts 20:10, 1Cor 2:11, Eph 1:10, Col 1:19, Hebrews 10:38, 1John 2:15, 3:5, 3:15, etc. but translates this same Greek phrase as “by means of him” in 2Cor 1:20, 5:21, and Col 2:10, “by relationship with him” in Col 2:11, “in his case” in 2Cor 1:19, 1John 2:8, 10, and “in union with him” in John 14:11, 2Cor 13:5, Eph 1:4, Phil 3:9, Col 2:6, 2Thess 1:12, 1John 1:5, 2:5, 2:27, 2:28, 3:6, 4:13, 4:15, and 4:16? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. What is the reason for the addition of words in these verses and for the inconsistency in translation of this very simple Greek phrase “en autos”? If the NWT was consistent and translated this very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in all the above verses, how would they read? Is the WTS trying to obscure the point of the author that the Christian life consists of a supernatural relationship with Christ?
Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you,..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Luke 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the word “paradise” (Gr-paradeisos – Strong’s #3857) refers to “the part of Hades which was thought by the later Jews to be the abode of the souls of the pious until the resurrection”, where Jesus would go in order to preach after his death (1Pet 3:18-20, 1Pet 4:5-6). By using this word instead of the Greek word for “heaven”, wasn’t Luke showing that Jesus was not referring to heaven when he made this statement? If the translation of this phrase in Luke 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in every other verse in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would this verse read?
In John 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the (Ho) Lord (kyrios) of me (moy) and (kai) THE (ho) God (theos) of me (moy)". Why does Jesus, in John 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and “THE God” of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?
In Luke 4:12, the NWT translates the Greek word “kyrios” (Gr-lord) as “Jehovah”, which makes this verse read, “You must not put Jehovah your God to the test”. See Greek-English Interlinear. Why is “kyrios” translated as “Jehovah” in this verse? Was the devil, in Luke 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the test or Jesus to the test? Similarly, in Mt 3:3, Mk 1:3, and John 1:23, the Greek word “kyrios” is translated as “Jehovah”. Was John the Baptist preparing the way for Jehovah, or preparing the way for Jesus (compare Isaiah 40:3)? See John 1:25-31. Since the Greek word “kyrios” (Strong’s # 2962) in these verses are clearly referring to Jesus, if this word was correctly translated as “lord” in these verses, what would these verses say about the nature of Christ?
In Col 1:26, 27, 2:2, and 4;3, the Greek word “musterion” (Strong’s # 3466) is translated as “sacred secret” but in the Kingdom Interlinear, this same word is translated correctly as “mystery”. Why the discrepancy in the translation of this word between the KIT and the NWT? Wouldn’t it have been just as easy to render this word correctly as “mystery” in the NWT? If this word would have been correctly rendered as “mystery” in the NWT, how would the above verses read and what would they say about the fact that some things about God are impossible to completely understand?
Charles Taze Russell
Since the WTS currently rejects most of the teachings of its founder, Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from 1879-1916), and since they also reject "judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from 1916-1942, how can you be sure that in 25 more years, the WTS won't reject the current president, Milton Henschel (1992-present), as they did Russell and Rutherford? What kind of confidence can you have in an organization that rejected its founder and first two presidents for the first 63 years of its existence - over 50% of the time they have existed.